HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Study Guide
1. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?
- A. Compulsive behavior
- B. Sense of impending doom
- C. Fear of flying
- D. Predictable episodes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.
2. Which of the following would be the best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes?
- A. Provide written pre and post tests
- B. Ask questions during practice
- C. Allow another diabetic to assist
- D. Observe a return demonstration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes is to observe a return demonstration. This method ensures that the client can correctly perform the technique. Providing written pre and post tests (choice A) may assess knowledge but not application. Asking questions during practice (choice B) may help with understanding but not necessarily with the actual performance. Allowing another diabetic to assist (choice C) may provide peer support but does not guarantee correct technique demonstration.
3. The public health RN is called to investigate a report of several cases of varicella at a daycare center. The daycare workers state that 5 children have been sent home over the past 2 weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the RN implement first?
- A. Validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox.
- B. Ask the parents to take the child to see their pediatrician.
- C. Ask the parents to not send the child back to daycare until after 6 weeks.
- D. Tell the parents to send the child back to daycare; it was a mistake they were sent home.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox. This is crucial in confirming the presence of varicella, which is necessary for appropriate management and control of the outbreak. Option B is not the first intervention because the focus initially is on verifying the cases within the daycare center. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a prolonged exclusion period without confirming the diagnosis. Option D is inappropriate and potentially harmful, as sending a child back without proper assessment can lead to further spread of the infection.
4. In 1996, there were 15 cases of Acute Respiratory Infection (ARI) in Barangay B, while Barangay C had 20 cases. The total number of children who have ARI is:
- A. higher in Barangay C than in Barangay B
- B. not comparable in Barangay B and C
- C. higher in Barangay B than in Barangay C
- D. data given is insufficient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'higher in Barangay C than in Barangay B.' This is because Barangay C had more cases of ARI (20) compared to Barangay B (15). Therefore, the total number of children who have ARI is higher in Barangay C. Choices B and C are incorrect because the data clearly shows that Barangay C had more cases than Barangay B. Choice D is also incorrect as there is sufficient data provided to compare the number of ARI cases between the two barangays.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. White blood cell count (WBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
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