Nursing Elites

1. You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?

• A. ''I will be receiving continuous doses of medication.''
• B. ''I should call the nurse before I take additional doses.''
• C. ''I will call for assistance if my pain is not relieved.''
• D. ''The machine will prevent an overdose.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Constipation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

3. A client tells the nurse he is fearful of planned surgery because of evil thoughts about a family member. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Call a chaplain
• B. Deny the feelings
• C. Cite recovery statistics
• D. Listen to the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to listen to the client. Listening allows the nurse to establish therapeutic communication, understand the client's fears and concerns, provide emotional support, and help alleviate anxiety. Calling a chaplain (Choice A) may be appropriate if the client requests spiritual support but should not be the initial response. Denying the feelings (Choice B) is dismissive and can hinder trust and communication. Citing recovery statistics (Choice C) is irrelevant and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.

4. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?

• A. Uterine atony
• B. Genital lacerations
• C. Abnormal clotting mechanism
• D. Endometritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

Similar Questions