Nursing Elites

1. You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?

• A. ''I will be receiving continuous doses of medication.''
• B. ''I should call the nurse before I take additional doses.''
• C. ''I will call for assistance if my pain is not relieved.''
• D. ''The machine will prevent an overdose.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.

2. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

3. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

4. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:

• A. downstream intervention
• B. risk management
• C. primary prevention
• D. upstream intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

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