Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

2. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?

• A. Uterine atony
• B. Genital lacerations
• C. Abnormal clotting mechanism
• D. Endometritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.

3. When caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome, which action should the nurse give the highest priority?

• A. Monitor intake and output
• B. Provide good skin care
• C. Assess level of consciousness
• D. Assist with range of motion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is crucial when caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome. Changes in neurological status can indicate deterioration of the condition, necessitating immediate medical attention. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing the child's level of consciousness. Providing good skin care and assisting with range of motion are also important aspects of care but take a lower priority than assessing the child's neurological status in this critical condition.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

5. Which of the following is designed to help clients reduce the risk of illness and maintain the maximum level of function?

• A. illness prevention
• B. crisis intervention
• C. rehabilitation
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion.' Health promotion strategies are aimed at helping individuals reduce the risk of illness and maintain their maximum level of function by emphasizing preventive measures, healthy behaviors, and lifestyle choices. Illness prevention (choice A) focuses on specific actions to avoid illness but may not necessarily address overall function. Crisis intervention (choice B) refers to immediate assistance during emergencies rather than long-term prevention. Rehabilitation (choice C) involves restoring function after illness or injury rather than primarily focusing on preventive measures and maintaining maximum function.

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