HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
2. To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?
- A. Finger and toenail quicks
- B. Eyes
- C. Perianal area
- D. External ear canals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.
3. The community health nurse has been following the care for an adolescent with a history of morbid obesity, asthma, hypertension, and is 22 weeks into a pregnancy. Which of these lab reports sent to the clinic needs to be called to the teen's healthcare provider within the next hour?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL and calcium 6 mg/dL
- B. Magnesium 0.8 mEq/L and creatinine 3 mg/dL
- C. Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL and glucose 225 mg/dL
- D. Hematocrit 33% and platelets 200,000
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The low magnesium level and elevated creatinine suggest possible renal dysfunction, which is concerning, especially in a pregnant client with multiple risk factors such as morbid obesity, asthma, and hypertension. Immediate attention is needed to address the potential renal issues. The other choices do not indicate such urgent conditions. Hemoglobin and calcium levels in choice A are within acceptable ranges. Choice C shows elevated blood urea nitrogen and glucose levels, which may need monitoring but not immediate attention. Choice D's hematocrit and platelet levels are also within normal ranges and do not indicate an urgent issue.
4. The nurse is teaching a group of older adults about medication safety. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. keeping a list of all medications and dosages
- B. sharing medications with family members if they have the same prescription
- C. stopping medications when symptoms improve
- D. doubling up on missed doses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: keeping a list of all medications and dosages. Maintaining a comprehensive list of medications and their dosages is essential for older adults to prevent medication errors and dangerous interactions. Choice B is incorrect because sharing medications, even if family members have the same prescription, can lead to unintended adverse effects or inappropriate dosages. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medications when symptoms improve can be harmful if the full course of treatment is not completed. Choice D is incorrect as doubling up on missed doses can result in overdosing and adverse reactions.
5. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Insertion of a chest tube
- C. Oxygen therapy
- D. Assisted ventilation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.
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