HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
2. When admitting an older adult client who is Hispanic, which of the following cultural considerations should the nurse include when developing the plan of care?
- A. The Hispanic culture views late adulthood as a time of wisdom and experience
- B. The Hispanic culture expects adult children to care for older adult parents
- C. The Hispanic culture identifies the eldest female family member as the decision maker
- D. The Hispanic culture expects individuals to make their own decisions when death is imminent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Hispanic culture, there is an expectation that adult children will care for their older parents, emphasizing a strong family support system. This cultural value highlights the importance of filial piety and respect for elders within the family structure. Choice A is incorrect because Hispanic culture generally values late adulthood as a time of wisdom and experience, not a negative time. Choice C is incorrect as Hispanic culture typically involves collective family decision-making rather than assigning decision-making solely to the eldest female member. Choice D is incorrect as Hispanic culture values family support and involvement in end-of-life decisions rather than individual decision-making.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
- B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
- C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
- D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.
4. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Perform a bladder scan to assess for urinary retention.
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- C. Insert a straight catheter to drain the bladder.
- D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.
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