the lpn prepares a 1000 ml iv of 5 dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours the infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter the nurse should re
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

2. When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear. The tragus is the small pointed eminence of the external ear, and pressing on it helps direct the medication deeper into the ear canal. Pulling the ear lobe up and back (Choice B) is the correct technique for administering eardrops to a child, not an adult. Inserting the medication deeply into the ear canal (Choice C) can cause injury or discomfort as the eardrops are designed to flow into the ear canal naturally. Massaging the ear gently after administering the medication (Choice D) is unnecessary and may not help the medication reach the inner ear effectively.

3. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Healthcare-associated infection rate. This measure best indicates the effect of the policy on infection control. By monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate, it can be determined if the policy of removing acrylic nails has contributed to reducing the risk of infections. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the outcome of the policy. The number of staff-induced injuries may not be solely due to acrylic nails. Client satisfaction may not be directly impacted by this policy, and needle-stick injuries are more related to a different aspect of healthcare practice.

4. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

5. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

Similar Questions

A client requires gastric decompression, and a nurse is inserting an NG tube. Which action should the nurse take to verify proper placement of the tube?
A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?
A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
When admitting a client, what information should the nurse record in the client’s record first?
A nurse manager is assigning care of a client who is being admitted from the PACU following thoracic surgery. The nurse manager should assign the client to which of the following staff members?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses