HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
2. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the quality of the pain?
- A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
- B. Does the pain feel like burning or aching?
- C. Is the pain constant or intermittent?
- D. Does the pain feel like throbbing or stabbing?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing pain quality, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps determine the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate a chronic issue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the quality of the pain in terms of sharpness or dullness.
3. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
- B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
- C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
- D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Ask, 'Tell me what I can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.'
- B. Instruct, 'You need to learn how to give yourself insulin injections immediately.'
- C. State, 'Insulin injections are important for managing your diabetes, so you must learn them.'
- D. Mention, 'Many people with diabetes manage well with insulin injections.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Asking the client what can be done to help overcome the fear of self-injections demonstrates empathy, understanding, and a willingness to support the client in addressing their barriers. This approach facilitates open communication, acknowledges the client's feelings, and involves them in the decision-making process. Choices B and C are authoritarian and may increase resistance in the client by being directive and not considering the client's perspective. Choice D, while positive, does not directly address the client's fear and resistance to self-injections, missing the opportunity to explore the underlying issues.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.
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