HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?
- A. Normal breathing sounds
- B. Wheezing
- C. Crackles
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.
2. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has had a stroke, resulting in aphasia and dysphagia. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
- B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication
- C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
- D. Feed the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assign the task of assisting the client with a partial bed bath to an assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to provide basic care tasks like hygiene assistance. Options B, C, and D involve more complex tasks such as measuring BP, using a communication board for speech-impaired clients, and feeding, which require nursing judgment and skills beyond basic care. Therefore, these tasks should be performed by licensed nursing staff who can assess, communicate effectively, and address the specific medical and safety needs of the client.
4. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
- A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
- D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.
5. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?
- A. It is contagious with frequent recurrences.
- B. It is most helpful to air-dry feet after bathing.
- C. It is treated with salicylic acid.
- D. It is caused by lice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.
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