Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
• B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
• C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
• D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

3. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

4. A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?

• A. Urticaria
• B. Ptosis
• C. Nausea
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.

5. A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Pallor
• C. Inspiratory crackles
• D. Heart murmur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.

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