Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
• B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
• C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
• D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

2. When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?

• A. Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy
• B. Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home
• C. Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care and/or the reliability of a caregiver
• D. Selecting the appropriate venous access device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.

3. The nurse receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
• B. Review the intake and output record
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the drainage tubing for a kink. A kink in the tubing can obstruct urine flow, potentially causing the low output. By addressing this first, the nurse can ensure that there are no physical obstructions hindering urine drainage. Reviewing the intake and output record is important, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence as it directly affects urine flow. Notifying the healthcare provider should be considered after assessing and resolving immediate issues. Giving the client water to drink may be appropriate, but addressing a kink in the tubing is the priority to ensure proper function of the urinary catheter.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 0.5 ml
• B. 1 ml
• C. 1.5 ml
• D. 2 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

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