HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
- B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
- C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
- D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.
2. When assessing bowel sounds, what action should a healthcare professional take?
- A. Listen to the bowel sounds before performing abdominal palpation
- B. Auscultate for 2 minutes to determine if bowel sounds are present
- C. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope over each quadrant
- D. Ask the client to cough while auscultating
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing bowel sounds, it is crucial to listen before performing any palpation as palpation can alter bowel sounds. The correct technique involves placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope over each quadrant of the abdomen to listen for bowel sounds. Auscultating for at least 5 minutes is recommended to accurately determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds. Asking the client to cough is not necessary for assessing bowel sounds and may not provide relevant information. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it follows the appropriate procedure for assessing bowel sounds.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Positive bowel sounds
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Elevated temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.
4. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
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