Nursing Elites

1. An assistive personnel says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should report this to the supervisor
• B. It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress
• C. Diapers are the best solution
• D. The client’s condition is not your concern

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

• A. WBC 15,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

3. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is your pain sharp or dull?
• B. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
• C. On a scale from 1 to 10, how severe is your pain?
• D. Where exactly is your pain located?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

Similar Questions