Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had a stroke. What task should be assigned to the assistive personnel?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
• B. Measure the client’s blood pressure after the nurse administers antihypertensive medications
• C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
• D. Feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the assistive personnel to assist the client with a partial bed bath. This task falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel and is a common activity in caring for clients who have had a stroke. Choice B involves measuring blood pressure, which should be done by a licensed nurse. Choice C requires the use of a communication board, which can be done by any healthcare team member, not just assistive personnel. Choice D involves feeding the client, which may require assessment and intervention by a licensed nurse to ensure proper nutrition and safety.

2. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?

• A. Presence of associated manifestations.
• B. Location of the pain
• C. Pain quality
• D. Aggravating and relieving factors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Cough
• C. Sore throat
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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