HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Turn the client’s head to the side.
- B. Place two fingers in the client’s mouth to open it.
- C. Brush the client’s teeth once per day.
- D. Inject mouth rinse into the center of the client’s mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client’s head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client’s mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client’s teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client’s head to the side.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?
- A. Collect at least 2 inches of formed stool.
- B. Wear sterile gloves while obtaining the specimen.
- C. Use a culturette for specimen collection.
- D. Record the date and time the stool was collected.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.
3. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
4. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, what should be the next action by the nurse?
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contact with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.
5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Verify tube placement every shift.
- D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
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