Nursing Elites

1. When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Turn the client’s head to the side.
• B. Place two fingers in the client’s mouth to open it.
• C. Brush the client’s teeth once per day.
• D. Inject mouth rinse into the center of the client’s mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client’s head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client’s mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client’s teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client’s head to the side.

2. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

3. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Heart murmur
• C. Macular rash
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Hematuria
• C. Urticaria
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Hematuria indicates blood in the urine and is not a typical allergic reaction symptom. Nausea can occur with various conditions, but it is not a specific manifestation of a mild allergic reaction.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

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