Nursing Elites

1. When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, which precaution should be taken?

• A. Contact precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, contact precautions should be implemented. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. In the case of abdominal wounds, bacteria and pathogens can easily be transmitted through contact with the wound or wound drainage. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Airborne precautions are used for infections spread through the air, like tuberculosis. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections and should be followed in addition to specific precautions based on the type of infection.

2. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?

• A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
• B. Increasing the protein-binding response
• C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
• D. Decreasing the excretion of medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.

3. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
• B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
• C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
• D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.

4. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

5. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?

• A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
• B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
• C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
• D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.

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