Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

• A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
• B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
• C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
• D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for knee-length anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift
• B. Roll the top of the client’s stockings down to just below the knee
• C. Seat the client in a chair for 30 minutes prior to applying stockings
• D. Measure the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift. This is important to inspect the skin and prevent complications such as pressure injuries or impaired circulation. Rolling the top of the stockings down can compromise their effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Seating the client in a chair prior to applying stockings is not directly related to the care of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold is not necessary for the application or care of knee-length anti-embolic stockings.

3. A client with a terminal illness and approaching death has noisy respirations and is short of breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Administer an opioid medication
• C. Perform oral suctioning
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the client's bed is the most appropriate action in this situation. It helps reduce noisy respirations and improves comfort for clients with terminal illnesses by facilitating better air exchange. Administering an opioid medication may not address the immediate issue of noisy respirations and shortness of breath caused by secretions in the airway. Performing oral suctioning without proper assessment and indication can be uncomfortable for the client and may not be necessary. Placing the client in a prone position can further compromise breathing and is not recommended for a client with respiratory distress.

4. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

• A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
• B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
• C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
• D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 1/2 tablet.
• B. 1 tablet.
• C. 1 1/2 tablets.
• D. 2 tablets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

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