Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

• A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
• B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
• C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
• D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

2. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?

• A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
• B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
• C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
• D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. During a physical assessment on a toddler, what should be the first action?

• A. Perform traumatic procedures
• B. Use minimal physical contact
• C. Proceed from head to toe
• D. Explain the exam in detail

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when performing a physical assessment on a toddler is to use minimal physical contact. This approach helps the toddler become comfortable and reduces anxiety during the assessment. Traumatic procedures (Choice A) should never be the first action as they can cause distress. Proceeding from head to toe (Choice C) is a common sequence in physical assessments but does not address the initial need to establish trust and comfort. Explaining the exam in detail (Choice D) is important but should come after establishing a rapport through minimal physical contact.

4. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?

• A. Hemolytic
• B. Allergic
• C. Febrile
• D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.

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