Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?

• A. A patient with neck surgery
• B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
• C. A patient with a total knee replacement
• D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.

2. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?

• A. Presence of associated manifestations.
• B. Location of the pain
• C. Pain quality
• D. Aggravating and relieving factors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
• B. Dark-colored urine
• C. Abdominal distention
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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