HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?
- A. A patient with neck surgery
- B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
- C. A patient with a total knee replacement
- D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.
2. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
- B. Check the urine for color and texture
- C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
- D. Discard the contents of the urinal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.
3. A client has an order for 1000 ml of D5W over an 8-hour period. The nurse discovers that 800 ml has been infused after 4 hours. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Ask the client if there are any breathing problems
- B. Have the client void as much as possible
- C. Check the vital signs
- D. Auscultate the lungs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Auscultate the lungs. When a significant amount of fluid has been infused, especially in a short period, it is crucial to assess for signs of fluid overload or pulmonary complications, such as crackles or decreased breath sounds. This can be achieved by auscultating the lungs. Choice A, asking the client about breathing problems, may provide valuable information, but direct assessment through auscultation takes priority. Choice B, having the client void, and Choice C, checking vital signs, are important nursing actions but are not as urgent as assessing the lungs for potential complications in this scenario.
4. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
- B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
- C. Pale nail beds in both hands
- D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.
5. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?
- A. smoothie
- B. sliced banana
- C. pancakes
- D. sunny side up (fried) eggs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.
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