HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:
- A. Is unable to swallow foods by mouth
- B. Has a gastrointestinal obstruction
- C. Requires additional caloric intake to support healing
- D. Is at risk for aspiration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Barrel chest
- B. Clubbing of the fingers
- C. Cough with sputum production
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Night sweats
- B. Weight loss
- C. Cough with bloody sputum
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cough with bloody sputum is a hallmark symptom of tuberculosis and is highly concerning as it indicates active disease. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is associated with tuberculosis infection in the lungs. While night sweats and weight loss are common symptoms of tuberculosis, they are less specific than coughing with bloody sputum. Fatigue is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in various conditions and is not specific to tuberculosis.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
- A. Tap just below the knee
- B. Tap on the upper thigh
- C. Tap on the ankle
- D. Tap on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
5. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
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