Nursing Elites

1. During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?

• A. Calf swelling
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Generalized rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
• B. Notify the nursing manager
• C. Consult the facility's risk manager
• D. Complete an incident report

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.

3. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?

• A. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort.
• B. Measure the client's oxygen saturation level.
• C. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas levels.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.

4. When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. "What worries you about being without your teeth?"
• B. "You need to follow the preoperative instructions and remove your dentures."
• C. "It's important to remove dentures to ensure proper fitting of the mask during anesthesia."
• D. "I will explain why dentures need to be removed before surgery."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.

5. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

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