Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

3. A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type of precautions is the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Compromised host precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when performing postmortem care on a client with MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve using barriers like gloves and gowns to limit direct contact with the deceased individual's body fluids and tissues. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that are transmitted through the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for pathogens that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a recognized standard precaution type and are not applicable in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to perform first?

• A. Implement airborne precautions.
• B. Obtain a sputum culture.
• C. Administer antituberculosis medications.
• D. Recommend a screening test for close contacts.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial priority when admitting a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis is to implement airborne precautions to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions include wearing a mask and placing the client in a negative pressure room. Obtaining a sputum culture is essential for confirming the diagnosis, but ensuring infection control measures come first to protect others. Administering antituberculosis medications is important but should be initiated after implementing necessary precautions. Recommending a screening test for close contacts is relevant but is a secondary concern compared to immediate infection control measures.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

• A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
• B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
• C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
• D. 6 liters per minute via face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

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