HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
3. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?
- A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
- B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
- C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
- D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.
4. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult's psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select ONE that does not apply.)
- A. Develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others.
- B. Spend time focusing on improving job performance.
- C. Welcome opportunities to be creative and productive.
- D. Commit to finding friendship and companionship.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
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