Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

3. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

4. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

5. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

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