Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

2. When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should:

• A. Cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
• B. Use a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag.
• C. Obtain the specimen from the drainage tubing.
• D. Replace the catheter before obtaining the specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure when obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter for culture and sensitivity is to cleanse the entry port before withdrawing urine. This step helps reduce the risk of contamination and ensures the accuracy of the results. Option B is incorrect because using a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag is not the recommended method for obtaining a catheter specimen. Option C is incorrect as obtaining the specimen from the drainage tubing is not the appropriate technique for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter. Option D is incorrect because replacing the catheter before obtaining the specimen is not necessary and may introduce unnecessary complications.

3. A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
• B. Place the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients.
• C. Allow the client to visit public areas freely.
• D. Ensure the client does not need any special precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.

4. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

Similar Questions