Nursing Elites

1. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

• A. Bleeding.
• B. Intense abdominal pain.
• C. Uterine activity.
• D. Cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

2. What causes cystic fibrosis?

• A. Sex-linked abnormality.
• B. Abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes.
• C. Recessive gene.
• D. Single segment found only on the Y chromosome.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. This means that both parents must carry at least one copy of the faulty gene for a child to inherit the condition. Choice A is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not linked to the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes but by a specific gene mutation. Choice D is also incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not related to the Y chromosome, which is specific to males.

3. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

4. The _____ is the inner layer of the embryo from which the lungs and digestive system develop.

• A. neural tube
• B. mesoderm
• C. endoderm
• D. umbilical cord

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The endoderm is the correct answer. It is the innermost layer of the embryo that gives rise to organs such as the lungs, digestive system, liver, and pancreas. The neural tube (Choice A) forms the brain and spinal cord, not the lungs or digestive system. Mesoderm (Choice B) develops into structures like muscles, bones, and circulatory system, not the lungs or digestive system. The umbilical cord (Choice D) serves as a connection between the embryo and the placenta, providing nutrients and oxygen, but it is not the layer from which lungs and digestive system develop.

5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

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