Nursing Elites

1. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

2. A client in labor requests nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following nursing actions promotes client comfort?

• A. Assisting the client into a squatting position
• B. Having the client lie in a supine position
• C. Applying fundal pressure during contractions
• D. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client into a squatting position promotes comfort during labor. This position can help relieve pain by utilizing gravity, allowing the pelvic outlet to widen, and potentially facilitating the progress of labor. Lying in a supine position (Choice B) can hinder labor progression and increase discomfort. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can be inappropriate and may cause harm as it is not routinely recommended during labor. Encouraging the client to void every 6 hours (Choice D) is important for bladder management but does not directly address pain relief during labor.

3. Which procedure is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities?

• A. Artificial insemination
• B. Amniocentesis
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay. This blood test measures the level of AFP in a pregnant woman's blood, aiding in the detection of neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Choice A, artificial insemination, is a method used to facilitate fertilization and is not related to detecting fetal abnormalities. Choice B, amniocentesis, involves collecting amniotic fluid for genetic testing, not directly measuring AFP levels. Choice C, endometriosis, is a medical condition involving abnormal tissue growth and is not a procedure for detecting fetal abnormalities. Therefore, the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is the most appropriate option for detecting neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

4. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?

• A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
• B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
• C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
• D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.

5. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Rarely
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.

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