Nursing Elites

1. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?

• A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
• B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
• C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
• D. Administer the vitamin K injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.

2. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?

• A. Caput succedaneum
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cephalhematoma
• D. Microcephaly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.

3. Which of the following conditions is considered a multifactorial problem?

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Down syndrome
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. XYY syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diabetes mellitus' because it is a multifactorial disease, influenced by both genetic predisposition and environmental factors. Cystic fibrosis (choice A) is primarily a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene. Down syndrome (choice B) is due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. XYY syndrome (choice D) is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome. These conditions are not considered multifactorial as their origins are primarily genetic.

4. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

5. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?

• A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
• B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
• C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
• D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.

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