HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?
- A. Bulging Fontanels
- B. Nasal Flaring
- C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
- D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.
2. Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?
- A. They regulate the development of traits.
- B. They prevent foreign particles from entering the body.
- C. They work together with lutein to influence development.
- D. They transfer oxygen from the bloodstream to other parts of the body.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They regulate the development of traits.' Genes play a crucial role in regulating the development of traits by encoding proteins that control various bodily functions and characteristics. This process involves gene expression and the production of proteins that ultimately determine an individual's traits. Choice B is incorrect because genes do not have a direct role in preventing foreign particles from entering the body; this function is primarily carried out by the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not specifically work with lutein to influence development; genes operate independently to regulate trait expression. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not responsible for transferring oxygen in the bloodstream; this function is carried out by red blood cells and hemoglobin.
3. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
- B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
- C. Onset of uterine contractions
- D. Leaking amniotic fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.
4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?
- A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.
5. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.
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