HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?
- A. Bulging Fontanels
- B. Nasal Flaring
- C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
- D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.
2. During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?
- A. Development of the lungs
- B. Development of the heart
- C. Development of arms and legs
- D. Development of the stomach
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.
3. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:
- A. codominance.
- B. preponderance.
- C. ascendance.
- D. concurrence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.
4. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?
- A. A client who has active genital herpes
- B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
- D. A client who has placenta previa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.
5. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.
- A. androgens
- B. genotypes
- C. blastocysts
- D. teratogens
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.
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