Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?

• A. Bulging Fontanels
• B. Nasal Flaring
• C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
• D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.

2. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

• A. Recurrent Cystitis
• B. Frequent Alcohol Use
• C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
• D. Chlamydia Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.

3. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

4. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide blow-by oxygen
• B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
• C. Draw arterial blood gases
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

5. After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.

• A. 46
• B. 35
• C. 23
• D. 12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.

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