HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?
- A. Bulging Fontanels
- B. Nasal Flaring
- C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
- D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.
2. A client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet asks a nurse for guidance on foods high in calcium. Which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?
- A. ½ cup cubed avocado
- B. 1 large banana
- C. 1 medium potato
- D. 1 cup cooked broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of cooked broccoli. Broccoli is an excellent source of calcium, making it a suitable choice for a vegan diet. Avocado (Choice A), banana (Choice B), and potato (Choice C) are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli. Avocado and banana are primarily sources of other nutrients like healthy fats and potassium, respectively. Potato is a good source of vitamin C and potassium but not calcium. Therefore, for a pregnant client following a vegan diet and seeking calcium-rich foods, cooked broccoli is the most appropriate choice.
3. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?
- A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
- B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
- C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
- D. Administer the vitamin K injection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.
4. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
- A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
- B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
- C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
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