Nursing Elites

1. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

2. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?

• A. At 18-20 weeks
• B. During the first month
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.

3. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Penicillin
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Gentamicin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
• B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
• C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
• D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

5. At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the suprapubic area for distention
• B. Inform the client to take a warm sitz bath
• C. Inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas
• D. Apply a fresh pad and check in 1 hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.

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