Nursing Elites

1. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

2. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
• B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
• C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
• D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

3. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

• A. Biovular twins
• B. Fraternal twins
• C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
• D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

• A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
• B. Placenta previa
• C. Midline episiotomy
• D. Gestational hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Minimal arm recoil
• B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
• C. Creases over the entire sole
• D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

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