Nursing Elites

1. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

2. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

3. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

4. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

5. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.

• A. amniotic sac
• B. umbilical cord
• C. neural tube
• D. embryonic disk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.

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