Nursing Elites

1. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

2. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer IV pain medication
• B. Perform a vaginal exam
• C. Reposition to side-lying
• D. Encourage pushing with each contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.

4. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

5. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:

• A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
• B. have no specific characteristic features.
• C. show deficits in cognitive development.
• D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.

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