HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Always
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.
2. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
- A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
- B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
- C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
- D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.
3. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
- B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
- C. Pulse 58/min
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.
4. What is the central layer of the embryo from which the bones and muscles develop?
- A. neural tube
- B. mesoderm
- C. ectoderm
- D. umbilical cord
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is mesoderm. The mesoderm is the middle layer of the embryo that gives rise to the bones, muscles, and other connective tissues. The neural tube (choice A) develops into the nervous system, not bones and muscles. The ectoderm (choice C) forms the skin and nervous system, not bones and muscles. The umbilical cord (choice D) is a structure that connects the developing fetus to the placenta; it is not a layer of the embryo that gives rise to bones and muscles.
5. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer IV pain medication
- B. Perform a vaginal exam
- C. Reposition to side-lying
- D. Encourage pushing with each contraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access