Nursing Elites

1. Are sperm much larger than ova?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Ova, also known as eggs, are actually the largest cells in the human body, while sperm are significantly smaller. This size difference is due to the different functions of the two gametes. Sperm are specialized for motility to reach and fertilize the egg, while ova contain nutrients and cellular machinery needed for fertilization and early embryonic development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sperm are not larger than ova; they are much smaller in size.

2. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?

• A. Molding
• B. Vernix Caseosa
• C. Acrocyanosis
• D. Sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.

4. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

• A. A client who has active genital herpes
• B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
• C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
• D. A client who has placenta previa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.

5. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

• A. To induce abortion
• B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
• C. To determine the baby's gender
• D. To monitor fetal growth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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