HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.
2. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
- B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
- C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
- D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.
3. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?
- A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
5. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Penicillin
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Gentamicin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.
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