Nursing Elites

1. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:

• A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
• B. have no specific characteristic features.
• C. show deficits in cognitive development.
• D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.

2. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
• B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
• C. Onset of uterine contractions
• D. Leaking amniotic fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

3. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

4. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Minimal arm recoil
• B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
• C. Creases over the entire sole
• D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

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