HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:
- A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
- B. have no specific characteristic features.
- C. show deficits in cognitive development.
- D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.
2. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.
3. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
- A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
- B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
- C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
- D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.
4. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. The client expels the placenta
- B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
- C. The client begins having regular contractions
- D. The client delivers the newborn
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
- C. Creases over the entire sole
- D. Sparse lanugo
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.
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