Nursing Elites

1. A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?

• A. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
• B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions occur every 12 to 15 minutes.
• C. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
• D. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cervical changes such as effacement and dilation to 2 cm are strong indicators of imminent preterm labor. These changes, combined with regular contractions, can signify labor at any gestation. Estriol can be detected in maternal plasma as early as 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been linked to preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions occurring every 12 to 15 minutes without cervical change are generally not concerning. While the presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation may predict preterm labor, its predictive value is limited (20%-40%). Therefore, cervical changes provide more reliable information regarding the risk of preterm labor.

2. When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?

• A. During the second or third week
• B. After the first trimester
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.

3. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?

• A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
• B. Lubricate the eyes.
• C. Prevent the development of infection.
• D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.

4. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

5. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
• B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
• C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
• D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.

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