Nursing Elites

1. After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.

• A. reductions
• B. expulsions
• C. conceptions
• D. mutations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.

2. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

3. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?

• A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
• B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
• C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
• D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.

4. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
• B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
• C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.

5. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

• A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
• B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
• C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
• D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

Similar Questions