a client at 31 weeks gestation with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks whic
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HESI LPN

Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

2. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

3. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

4. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

5. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

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