HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
- B. Recalculation of gestational age
- C. Evaluation of fetal growth
- D. Determination of fetal presentation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.
2. Which of the following statements is a symptom of cystic fibrosis in children?
- A. Cystic fibrosis leads to uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes.
- B. Cystic fibrosis leads to the excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs.
- C. Cystic fibrosis causes red blood cells to clump together, obstructing small blood vessels and decreasing the oxygen supply.
- D. Cystic fibrosis causes the central nervous system to degenerate, resulting in death.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus. This mucus can clog the airways in the lungs and obstruct the pancreas, leading to severe respiratory and digestive problems. Choice A is incorrect because uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes are not typical symptoms of cystic fibrosis. Choice C is incorrect because cystic fibrosis does not directly cause red blood cells to clump together and obstruct small blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect because cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not the central nervous system.
3. Which of the following illnesses causes degeneration of the central nervous system?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Klinefelter syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder that causes a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system, particularly in infants. Choice B, Cystic fibrosis, is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system, not the central nervous system. Choices C and D, Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome, are chromosomal disorders that do not directly involve degeneration of the central nervous system.
4. What additional assessment is required for the postoperative care of a pregnant woman who undergoes abdominal surgery for appendicitis?
- A. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site.
- B. Signs and symptoms of infection.
- C. Vital signs and incision.
- D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct additional assessment for postoperative care of a pregnant woman requiring abdominal surgery for appendicitis is monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity. This is crucial due to the presence of the fetus. Continuous fetal and uterine monitoring should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While assessing I&O levels and the IV site are common postoperative care procedures, they are not specific to the unique needs of a pregnant woman. Evaluating for signs and symptoms of infection is important for any postoperative patient but is not the additional assessment required specifically for a pregnant woman in this scenario. Routine vital signs and incision evaluation are standard components of postoperative care but do not address the specific needs related to the fetus and the uterus in this case.
5. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
- A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
- B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
- C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
- D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
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