Nursing Elites

1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

2. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• C. Hemophilia
• D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

3. What causes sickle-cell anemia?

• A. A chromosomal abnormality.
• B. A single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
• C. A recessive gene.
• D. A decrease in estrogen levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. The correct answer is C. Choice A is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is not primarily caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Choice B is incorrect as the condition is not linked to a single segment found only on the Y chromosome. Choice D is unrelated as it mentions a decrease in estrogen levels, which is not a cause of sickle-cell anemia.

4. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

5. Which field of biology studies heredity?

• A. Etiology.
• B. Ecology.
• C. Genetics.
• D. Eugenics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Genetics is the branch of biology that focuses on the study of heredity and variation in organisms. Etiology (choice A) deals with the causes of diseases, not heredity. Ecology (choice B) is concerned with the relationships between organisms and their environment, not specifically heredity. Eugenics (choice D) is a controversial field that involves improving the genetic quality of the human population through selective breeding, which is different from the study of heredity itself.

Similar Questions