a client at 31 weeks gestation with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks whic
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Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

2. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.

3. According to a study conducted in 2013 by Fellman, what affects the chances of having twins?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. According to the study by Fellman in 2013, the chances of having twins actually increase with parental age. Choice A is incorrect as the study does not specify a younger age for conceiving to increase the chances of twins. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of intercourse before conception is not a highlighted factor in the study. Choice D is also incorrect as the study does not discuss the impact of fertility drugs on the likelihood of having twins.

4. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

5. A pregnant client mentions in her history that she changes the cat's litter box daily. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, TORCH screening. TORCH screening is done to detect infections such as toxoplasmosis, which can be contracted from handling cat litter and is harmful during pregnancy. Biophysical profile (choice A) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation. Fern test (choice B) is used to assess for amniotic fluid leakage. Amniocentesis (choice C) involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid to test for genetic abnormalities and certain infections, not specifically related to toxoplasmosis from cat litter.

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