a client at 31 weeks gestation with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks whic
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HESI LPN

Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

2. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.

3. If an individual receives a recessive gene for eye color from both parents, the:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an individual inherits a recessive gene for eye color from both parents, the recessive trait will be expressed in the child. This is because having two copies of the recessive gene overrides the presence of any dominant gene. Choice A is incorrect because the expression of the trait is determined by the genetic makeup, not the gender of the child. Choice C is incorrect as the expression of the recessive trait is certain when both parents pass on the recessive gene, but it does not mean that all offspring will express the trait. Choice D is incorrect because if both parents provide a recessive gene, the dominant trait will not be expressed in the child, but it does not mean it will be suppressed; rather, the recessive trait will be expressed.

4. _________ is self-propulsion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.

5. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).

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