Nursing Elites

1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

2. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.

3. A newborn who was born post-term is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• B. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-negative infant
• C. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• D. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-negative infant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant.' In cases where the newborn is born post-term, the mismatched Rh factor between the mother (Rh-negative) and the infant (Rh-positive) can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis. This can result in jaundice, anemia, and other serious complications for the infant. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the mismatched Rh factor scenario that poses a risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

4. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

5. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will count baby’s kicks every other day.”
• B. “I will alternate the arm used to check my blood pressure.”
• C. “I will consume 50 grams of protein daily.”
• D. ---

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.

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