HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
- B. Recalculation of gestational age
- C. Evaluation of fetal growth
- D. Determination of fetal presentation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.
2. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
- B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
- C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
- D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.
3. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
- A. Group B strep culture
- B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
- C. Rubella titer
- D. Blood type and Rh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.
4. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?
- A. 1 week.
- B. 2 weeks.
- C. 3 weeks.
- D. 4 weeks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.
5. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
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