Nursing Elites

1. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 20 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
• C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
• D. WBC count 32,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.

2. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

• A. Rubella
• B. Syphilis
• C. Preeclampsia
• D. Phenylketonuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

3. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?

• A. Biovular twins
• B. Fraternal twins
• C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
• D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.

4. Which of the following statements is true of menstruation?

• A. During this time, the endometrium is shed.
• B. During this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged.
• C. During this time, a female can engage in sexual activity with her partner.
• D. During this time, a fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding menstruation is that during this time, an unfertilized egg is discharged along with the shedding of the uterine lining. Choice A is incorrect because the endometrium is shed during menstruation. Choice C is incorrect as menstruation does not prevent a female from engaging in sexual activity with her partner. Choice D is incorrect as a fertilized egg does not undergo mitosis during menstruation but rather implants in the uterine lining for further development.

5. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

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