HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 20 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
- C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
- D. WBC count 32,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.
2. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?
- A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
- B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
- C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
- D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.
3. A client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet asks a nurse for guidance on foods high in calcium. Which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?
- A. ½ cup cubed avocado
- B. 1 large banana
- C. 1 medium potato
- D. 1 cup cooked broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of cooked broccoli. Broccoli is an excellent source of calcium, making it a suitable choice for a vegan diet. Avocado (Choice A), banana (Choice B), and potato (Choice C) are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli. Avocado and banana are primarily sources of other nutrients like healthy fats and potassium, respectively. Potato is a good source of vitamin C and potassium but not calcium. Therefore, for a pregnant client following a vegan diet and seeking calcium-rich foods, cooked broccoli is the most appropriate choice.
4. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?
- A. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 in an individual.
- B. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle-cell anemia.
- C. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception.
- D. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.
5. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:
- A. codominance.
- B. preponderance.
- C. ascendance.
- D. concurrence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.
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