HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?
- A. Hgb 20 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
- C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
- D. WBC count 32,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.
2. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Sometimes
- D. Never
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus, not the other way around. Therefore, the statement that an Rh-positive woman is carrying an Rh-negative fetus is incorrect. Rh incompatibility can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn, where maternal antibodies attack the fetal red blood cells. Choice A is incorrect because the statement is false. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility has a clear cause and effect relationship. Choice D is incorrect as Rh incompatibility can occur, but it depends on the Rh status of the mother and fetus.
3. A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to use effleurage.
- B. Apply counterpressure to the client's sacrum.
- C. Assist the client with patterned-paced breathing.
- D. Teach the client the technique of biofeedback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.
4. Matt is a 36-year-old male. In the past year, he has noticed that his limbs sometimes move on their own, and he has also started having trouble remembering things and doing simple calculations. Matt’s father and grandfather were also known to have similar problems during their adulthood. Matt is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Turner syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Matt is exhibiting symptoms typical of Huntington’s disease (HD), a hereditary condition characterized by involuntary movements, cognitive impairment, and behavioral changes. The fact that Matt's father and grandfather had similar issues supports the genetic nature of the disease. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that affects amino acid metabolism, not presenting with the symptoms described. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not causing the neurological symptoms described. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition affecting females and is not associated with the symptoms described in the case of Matt.
5. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?
- A. To reduce the chromosome number by half
- B. To increase the chromosome number
- C. To create identical copies of chromosomes
- D. To repair damaged chromosomes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.
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