HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet asks a nurse for guidance on foods high in calcium. Which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?
- A. ½ cup cubed avocado
- B. 1 large banana
- C. 1 medium potato
- D. 1 cup cooked broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of cooked broccoli. Broccoli is an excellent source of calcium, making it a suitable choice for a vegan diet. Avocado (Choice A), banana (Choice B), and potato (Choice C) are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli. Avocado and banana are primarily sources of other nutrients like healthy fats and potassium, respectively. Potato is a good source of vitamin C and potassium but not calcium. Therefore, for a pregnant client following a vegan diet and seeking calcium-rich foods, cooked broccoli is the most appropriate choice.
2. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
- B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
- C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
- D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.
3. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:
- A. an XYY male.
- B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
- C. an XXY male.
- D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.
4. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?
- A. Caput succedaneum
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Cephalhematoma
- D. Microcephaly
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.
5. After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.
- A. 46
- B. 35
- C. 23
- D. 12
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.
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