Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

• A. To induce abortion
• B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
• C. To determine the baby's gender
• D. To monitor fetal growth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. Females with Turner syndrome:

• A. possess more thymine than cytosine.
• B. are taller than average.
• C. produce little estrogen.
• D. are more likely to give birth to twins.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in females characterized by short stature and underdeveloped ovaries, resulting in low estrogen production. This leads to symptoms such as delayed puberty and infertility. Choice A is incorrect because the chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome does not affect the thymine-cytosine ratio. Choice B is incorrect as females with Turner syndrome are typically shorter than average. Choice D is incorrect as Turner syndrome does not increase the likelihood of giving birth to twins.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Vulvar Lesions
• D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.

• A. rod-shaped
• B. circular
• C. cone-shaped
• D. octagonal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.

5. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide blow-by oxygen
• B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
• C. Draw arterial blood gases
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

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