Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

• A. To induce abortion
• B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
• C. To determine the baby's gender
• D. To monitor fetal growth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?

• A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
• B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
• C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
• D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.

3. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

4. A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?

• A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
• B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
• C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
• D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.

5. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer indomethacin
• B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.

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