Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

• A. To induce abortion
• B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
• C. To determine the baby's gender
• D. To monitor fetal growth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?

• A. Molding
• B. Vernix Caseosa
• C. Acrocyanosis
• D. Sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.

3. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?

• A. Accelerations with fetal movement.
• B. Early decelerations.
• C. Average FHR of 126 beats per minute.
• D. Late decelerations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).

4. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will count baby’s kicks every other day.”
• B. “I will alternate the arm used to check my blood pressure.”
• C. “I will consume 50 grams of protein daily.”
• D. ---

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.

5. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:

• A. codominance.
• B. preponderance.
• C. ascendance.
• D. concurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.

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