Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Assess the client for orthostatic hypotension
• B. Obtain a gait belt
• C. Ensure the client has proper footwear
• D. Ask the client to perform range-of-motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client for orthostatic hypotension is the priority before transferring a client who can bear weight on one leg. This assessment helps identify the risk of dizziness or fainting when the client moves from a supine to an upright position. Obtaining a gait belt may be necessary for the transfer, but assessing for orthostatic hypotension comes first to ensure the safety of the client. Ensuring the client has proper footwear is important for preventing falls during ambulation but is not the immediate next step in this situation. Asking the client to perform range-of-motion exercises is not necessary before the transfer and does not address the immediate safety concern of orthostatic hypotension.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.

4. The charge nurse on the unit observes that one of the staff nurses is not using proper hand washing techniques. Which is the most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior?

• A. Remind the nurse that proper hand washing prevents infection
• B. Discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene
• C. Provide a review of the hand washing policy
• D. Refer the nurse to the infection control nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior of improper hand washing by a staff nurse is to discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene. This approach helps in identifying any knowledge gaps the nurse may have and provides an opportunity to educate and correct the behavior. Option A is not the best choice as simply reminding the nurse about the importance of hand washing may not address the underlying issue of knowledge or technique. Option C, providing a review of the hand washing policy, may be necessary but is not the most immediate step to take. Option D, referring the nurse to the infection control nurse, is premature and may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved through education and communication first.

5. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

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