Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Hematuria
• C. Urticaria
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Hematuria indicates blood in the urine and is not a typical allergic reaction symptom. Nausea can occur with various conditions, but it is not a specific manifestation of a mild allergic reaction.

2. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?

• A. Spinach
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.

3. A nurse overhears a colleague informing a client that he will administer her medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills. The nurse should recognize that the colleague is committing which of the following torts?

• A. Defamation - harming someone's reputation through false statements.
• B. Malpractice - professional negligence or misconduct.
• C. Assault - threatening to cause harm to someone.
• D. Battery - intentional harmful or offensive physical contact.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the colleague's action of informing the client that he will administer medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills constitutes assault. Assault is the act of threatening harm that causes fear of imminent harm. It does not involve physical contact but rather the apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive act. Defamation, choice A, is incorrect as it involves harming someone's reputation through false statements. Malpractice, choice B, is also incorrect as it refers to professional negligence or misconduct in performing duties. Battery, choice D, is not the correct answer as it involves intentional harmful or offensive physical contact with the person.

4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV fluids to a client. The professional notes sparks when plugging in the IV pump. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Label the pump with a defective equipment sticker.
• B. Unplug the pump.
• C. Obtain a replacement pump.
• D. Notify the maintenance department to fix the pump.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Unplugging the pump is the correct initial action in this situation to prevent any potential fire hazards. Sparks when plugging in the IV pump indicate an electrical issue that can lead to a fire. By immediately unplugging the pump, the healthcare professional ensures the safety of the client and prevents any further risks. Labeling the pump with a defective equipment sticker (Choice A) is not the priority as the immediate concern is safety. Obtaining a replacement pump (Choice C) can be considered after addressing the safety issue. Notifying the maintenance department (Choice D) is important but should follow the immediate action of unplugging the pump to mitigate the risk.

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