Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Hematuria
• C. Urticaria
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Hematuria indicates blood in the urine and is not a typical allergic reaction symptom. Nausea can occur with various conditions, but it is not a specific manifestation of a mild allergic reaction.

2. A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notify the manufacturer
• B. Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min
• C. Adjust the machine settings again
• D. Ignore the extra readings

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to disconnect the electronic blood pressure machine and measure the client's blood pressure manually every 15 minutes. Given that the machine is malfunctioning and providing inconsistent readings, relying on manual measurements ensures accuracy and maintains the quality of care. Notifying the manufacturer (Choice A) may be necessary in the long run, but the immediate concern is the accuracy of the vital signs. Adjusting the machine settings again (Choice C) without resolving the underlying issue would not address the problem. Ignoring the extra readings (Choice D) could lead to incorrect assessment and compromise patient care. Therefore, the best course of action is to disconnect the machine and opt for manual blood pressure measurements until the issue is resolved.

3. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

4. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

• A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
• B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
• C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
• D. 6 liters per minute via face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

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