Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. How should the nurse prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Place a client with TB in a negative pressure room.
• B. Use standard precautions only.
• C. Place a client with TB in a private room.
• D. Use barrier precautions only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a client with TB in a negative pressure room. Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease, and placing the client in a negative pressure room helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing and filtering the air within the room. Standard precautions (Choice B) are important for preventing the spread of infection in general, but specific precautions are needed for airborne diseases like TB. Placing the client in a private room (Choice C) may not provide adequate ventilation and containment of airborne pathogens. Using barrier precautions (Choice D) alone is not sufficient for preventing the airborne transmission of TB.

2. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

• A. “The temperature around the IV site is cooler.”
• B. “The rate of the infusion increases.”
• C. “The skin at the IV site is red.”
• D. “The IV dressing is damp.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

3. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

4. A nurse is counseling a young adult who describes having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as the priority to assess further?

• A. “I have my own apartment now, but it’s not easy living away from my guardians.”
• B. “It’s been so stressful for me to even think about having my own family.”
• C. “I don’t even know who I am yet, and now I’m supposed to know what to do.”
• D. “My partner is pregnant, and I don’t think I have what it takes to be a good parent.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about feeling unprepared to be a good parent indicates a significant concern that may need further assessment and support. This statement raises issues regarding the individual's readiness for parenthood and potential impact on the partner and the unborn child. Choices A, B, and C, while important, do not present immediate concerns regarding the well-being of another individual and do not raise potential risks that could have a direct impact on others.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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