HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my pulse before taking the medication.
- B. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
- C. I should avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
- D. I should eat foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking digoxin should avoid eating foods high in potassium, as this can affect the medication's efficacy. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements regarding digoxin administration and precautions, indicating the client's understanding of the medication and its management.
2. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
3. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?
- A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
- B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
- C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
- D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.
4. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
- A. Screening for early symptoms
- B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
- C. Elimination of the exposure
- D. Increasing awareness of symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.
5. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
- C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- D. Loose stools
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
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