HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. When assessing a client reporting increased pain after physical therapy, which question should the nurse ask to evaluate the quality of the pain?
- A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
- B. Does the pain radiate to other areas?
- C. Does the pain increase with movement?
- D. Can you rate your pain on a scale of 1 to 10?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing the quality of a client's pain is whether the pain is sharp or dull. This helps in understanding the characteristics of the pain being experienced. Choice B, asking if the pain radiates to other areas, focuses more on pain distribution rather than quality. Choice C, inquiring if the pain increases with movement, pertains to aggravating factors rather than pain quality. Choice D, requesting the client to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, is related to pain intensity rather than quality.
3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent further skin breakdown?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the ulcer.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Use a donut-shaped cushion when the client is sitting.
- D. Massage the area around the ulcer to promote circulation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is the most appropriate action to prevent further skin breakdown in a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. This practice helps relieve pressure on the affected area, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing (Choice A) may be beneficial for wound healing but is not the initial preventive measure. Using a donut-shaped cushion (Choice C) can actually increase pressure on the sacrum and worsen the condition. Massaging the area around the ulcer (Choice D) can further damage delicate skin and tissues, leading to more harm instead of prevention.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?
- A. Airborne
- B. Droplet
- C. Protective
- D. Contact
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access