HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?
- A. Maintain the airway
- B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
- C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
- D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.
3. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?
- A. Pallor
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Jaundice
- D. Erythema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.
4. A client is experiencing a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. Which of the following stages of infection is the client likely in?
- A. Prodromal
- B. Incubation
- C. Convalescence
- D. Illness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client in this scenario is in the illness stage of infection. During this stage, the individual exhibits specific symptoms such as a severe sore throat, pain when swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes. The prodromal stage precedes the appearance of specific symptoms and is characterized by nonspecific signs. The incubation period occurs between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. Convalescence is the recovery period following the resolution of the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is 'D: Illness' as it aligns with the symptoms presented by the client.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Mild nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Increased fatigue
- D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
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