Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A client requires rectal temperature monitoring, and a nurse has a thermometer with a long, slender tip at the bedside. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end
• B. Use the available thermometer as is
• C. Request a new thermometer
• D. Measure the temperature orally instead

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When monitoring rectal temperature, it is crucial to use a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end to prevent injury and ensure accurate readings. Using a thermometer with a long, slender tip can pose a risk of perforation or discomfort for the client. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end. Using the available thermometer as is would not address the safety concerns. Requesting a new thermometer is unnecessary when a suitable one is available by just obtaining it. Measuring the temperature orally instead would not provide the required rectal temperature monitoring.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

4. A client is about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. A healthcare professional is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to the client. The healthcare professional realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client:

• A. Is not feeling well
• B. Reports severe pain
• C. Has low blood pressure
• D. Is anxious

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Severe pain can be a significant distraction and impediment to the learning process. When a client is experiencing severe pain, their focus and attention are primarily directed towards managing the pain, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain new information effectively. Options A, C, and D, although important considerations in a healthcare setting, do not directly impact the client’s ability to learn in the same way that severe pain does. Not feeling well, low blood pressure, and anxiety are all factors that can be addressed or managed to facilitate learning, unlike severe pain which can significantly hinder the learning process.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

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