HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?
- A. Presence of associated manifestations.
- B. Location of the pain
- C. Pain quality
- D. Aggravating and relieving factors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.
3. A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?
- A. Creating a plan of care for a client who is recovering following a stroke.
- B. Assessing a pressure injury on a client who is on bed rest.
- C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
- D. Teaching a client who has asthma to use a metered-dose inhaler.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia. This task falls within the practical nurse's scope of practice, as it involves direct patient care and basic interventions. Creating a plan of care for a client recovering from a stroke involves critical thinking and comprehensive assessment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. Assessing a pressure injury requires specialized wound care knowledge, often performed by wound care specialists or registered nurses with wound care training. Teaching a client to use a metered-dose inhaler involves patient education and requires a thorough understanding of asthma management, making it more suitable for a registered nurse.
4. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
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