Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
• B. Apply a warm compress.
• C. Administer analgesics.
• D. Discontinue the infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.

3. A client has Clostridium difficile and is in contact isolation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wear gloves when changing the client's gown.
• B. Use hand sanitizer after contact with the client.
• C. Wear a mask when entering the client's room.
• D. Clean the room with a disinfectant spray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile in contact isolation is to wear gloves when changing the client's gown. Clostridium difficile is highly transmissible, and wearing gloves helps prevent the spread of the infection. Using hand sanitizer after contact with the client (Choice B) is not enough to prevent the transmission of C. difficile, as the spores can persist and spread. Wearing a mask when entering the client's room (Choice C) is not necessary for C. difficile transmission, which primarily occurs through contact with contaminated surfaces. Cleaning the room with a disinfectant spray (Choice D) is important, but wearing gloves during direct care is the priority to prevent the nurse from acquiring and spreading the infection.

4. A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?

• A. Supine and low Fowler's position
• B. Right lateral in Trendelenburg position
• C. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated
• D. Prone with pillows under the extremities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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