Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

• A. ''I think I should take my pain medication more often since it is not controlling my pain.''
• B. ''Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off of the pain.''
• C. ''It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed.''
• D. ''I don't want to walk today because I have some pain.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.

3. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

4. A client expresses that, based on religious values and mandates, a blood transfusion is not an acceptable treatment option. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “I believe in this case you should make an exception and accept the blood transfusion.”
• B. “I know your family would approve of your decision to have a blood transfusion.”
• C. “Why does your religion mandate that you cannot receive any blood transfusions?”
• D. “Let’s discuss the necessity for a blood transfusion with your religious and spiritual leaders and come to a reasonable solution.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is to involve the client's religious and spiritual leaders in the discussion to find a solution that respects both the client's values and medical needs. Option A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's beliefs. Option B assumes the family's opinion over the client's. Option C is inappropriate as it questions the client's religious beliefs rather than addressing the concern respectfully.

5. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

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