Nursing Elites

1. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe medication wastage
• B. Document the amount of medication drawn on the MAR
• C. Dispose of the remaining medication in a sharps container
• D. Administer the entire vial of medication to avoid wastage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.

2. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?

• A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
• B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
• C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
• D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.

3. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

4. When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Divert the client’s attention
• B. Call for additional help from staff
• C. Document the planned action
• D. Re-assess the client's situation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Re-assessing the client's situation before providing care is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By re-evaluating the client, the nurse can better understand the cause of the anxiety and tailor the care accordingly. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue causing anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) is not the initial step required unless there is an urgent need. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after reassessing the client to ensure accuracy and relevance.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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