a nurse is preparing an injection for opioid medication draws 1ml from 2ml vial what should the nurse do a nurse is preparing an injection for opioid medication draws 1ml from 2ml vial what should the nurse do
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.

2. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.

3. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.

4. During a routine monthly examination, a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. What assessment finding should alert the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute in a 5-month-old infant is higher than the expected range and may indicate respiratory distress. This finding is concerning and should prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider for further evaluation and intervention. A temperature of 99.5°F, blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg, and heart rate of 100 beats per minute are within normal ranges for a 5-month-old infant. Elevated temperature may indicate a mild fever, which can be monitored. A blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg is within the normal range for infants. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute is also within the expected range for a 5-month-old infant and does not typically require immediate notification of the health care provider.

5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

Similar Questions

During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?
When deciding whether to join a nursing strike called after collective bargaining efforts have failed, which factor is most important for the nurse to consider?
The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?
The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
The school RN is assessing a group of middle school students for signs of scoliosis and discovers a female student with noticeable unequal symmetry of the upper and lower back. Which intervention is most important for the RN to implement?

Access More Features

HESI Basic

HESI Basic