Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

3. Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?

• A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
• B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
• C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
• D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum sodium level.
• B. Serum potassium level.
• C. Serum calcium level.
• D. Serum glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the client’s glycemic control?

• A. Monitor fasting blood glucose levels
• B. Check urine for ketones
• C. Evaluate hemoglobin A1c levels
• D. Assess the client’s dietary intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating hemoglobin A1c levels is the most appropriate intervention to assess glycemic control in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hemoglobin A1c levels reflect the average blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information for monitoring and managing diabetes. Monitoring fasting blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important for daily management but does not provide a long-term view like hemoglobin A1c. Checking urine for ketones (Choice B) is more relevant for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis. Assessing dietary intake (Choice D) is crucial for overall diabetes management but does not directly assess glycemic control.

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