Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?

• A. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolyte levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.

3. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.

5. A female client’s significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client’s estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges
• B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
• C. Encourage the client to speak with her husband regarding his disruptive behavior
• D. Communicate the client’s wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client's estranged husband demands to restrict the visitation of the significant other, it is essential to prioritize the client's wishes while addressing the conflict. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee is appropriate as it allows for a comprehensive and impartial resolution, ensuring the client's autonomy and well-being are upheld. Option A is incorrect because visitation privileges are not solely determined by a healthcare provider's prescription in this scenario. Option C may not be appropriate as it puts the client in a potentially uncomfortable or unsafe position. Option D, while important, does not directly address the conflict between the estranged husband and the significant other.

Similar Questions