Nursing Elites

1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Evaluate electrolytes
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.

4. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

5. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?

• A. The client’s temperature
• B. The client’s menses are overdue
• C. The client’s crying
• D. The client’s soft abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.

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