HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
- A. Spaghetti
- B. Watermelon
- C. Chicken
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
2. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Verify tube placement every shift.
- D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
3. In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- B. Administer an antiemetic.
- C. Offer pain medication.
- D. Palpate the abdomen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.
4. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?
- A. These are normal signs of aging.
- B. These are early signs of dementia.
- C. These are purely psychological in origin.
- D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning?
- A. Morning stiffness
- B. Joint deformities
- C. Fever
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of fever is most concerning because it may indicate an infection or systemic involvement, necessitating immediate attention. Morning stiffness and joint deformities are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and are expected findings in these clients. Weight loss can occur in rheumatoid arthritis due to various factors such as decreased appetite or systemic inflammation, but it is not as acutely concerning as fever, which may signal a more urgent issue.
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