the provider orders lanoxin digoxin 0125 mg po and furosomide 40 mg every day which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at
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1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

3. After a renal biopsy, a client has returned to the unit. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is crucial after a renal biopsy to promptly detect any signs of bleeding or complications. Ambulating the client 4 hours after the procedure may increase the risk of bleeding, so it is not appropriate. Maintaining the client on NPO status for 24 hours is not necessary unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider. Changing the dressing every 8 hours is not typically indicated unless there is a specific concern or order to do so.

4. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

5. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

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