Nursing Elites

1. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

• A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
• B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
• C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
• D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

2. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breathing sounds
• B. Wheezing
• C. Crackles
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

3. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?

• A. Trying to increase independence.
• B. Developing a sense of trust.
• C. Establishing a new identity.
• D. Attempting to master a skill.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.

5. Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The healthcare professional understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of:

• A. Temperature
• B. Time
• C. Friction
• D. Soap

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Friction. The amount of friction is crucial in effective hand hygiene to remove microorganisms. Rubbing hands together with friction helps to dislodge and remove dirt, oils, and microorganisms. While temperature and soap are important factors in hand hygiene, the mechanical action of friction plays a more significant role in physically removing contaminants. Time is also important in hand hygiene practice, but without adequate friction, the effectiveness of the process is compromised.

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