Nursing Elites

1. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

• A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
• B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
• C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
• D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

2. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?

• A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
• B. Muscle atrophy
• C. Pressure injury
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 83 gtt/min
• B. 125 gtt/min
• C. 100 gtt/min
• D. 75 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

4. A client is prescribed a buccal medication. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to take this medication?

• A. “I will first dissolve the tablet in water.”
• B. “I will insert the tablet between my cheek and teeth.”
• C. “I will place the tablet under my tongue.”
• D. “I will chew the tablet.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to take buccal medications is to insert the tablet between the cheek and gums where it will dissolve slowly. Option A is incorrect because buccal medications are not meant to be dissolved in water. Option C is incorrect as sublingual medications are placed under the tongue. Option D is incorrect because chewing a buccal tablet is not the correct administration method.

5. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

• A. 80
• B. 8
• C. 21
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

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