HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A nurse is called away for an emergency while conversing with a client who is concerned about his medical diagnosis. The nurse returns to the client promptly, as promised. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse demonstrating?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Beneficence
- D. Justice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fidelity. Fidelity in nursing ethics involves keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, demonstrating reliability and trustworthiness. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying fidelity by returning promptly to the client as promised. Choice B, Autonomy, refers to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, not relevant in this situation. Choice C, Beneficence, involves the duty to act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the primary focus here. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equity in the distribution of healthcare resources, not applicable to the nurse's actions in this case.
2. The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?
- A. Measure the amount of a client's residual urine after voiding
- B. Cleanse the perineal area of a client with urinary incontinence
- C. Insert a straight catheter to obtain a urine specimen for culture
- D. Provide catheter care for a client with a suprapubic catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.
3. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?
- A. Prone.
- B. Fowler's.
- C. Sims'.
- D. Supine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.
4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...
- A. Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern
- B. Have the client sign a new surgical permit
- C. Add the client’s concern to the permit
- D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client’s concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client’s specific requests.
5. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.