Nursing Elites

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

3. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
• B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
• C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
• D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

• A. Erythema on pressure points
• B. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+
• C. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day
• D. A bowel movement every other day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

5. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

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