Nursing Elites

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. A client requires gastric decompression, and a nurse is inserting an NG tube. Which action should the nurse take to verify proper placement of the tube?

• A. Assess the client for a gag reflex
• B. Measure the pH of the gastric aspirate
• C. Place the end of the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling
• D. Auscultate 2.5 cm (1 in) above the umbilicus while injecting 15 mL of sterile water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring the pH of the gastric aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm proper placement of an NG tube. Gastric fluid has an acidic pH, typically ranging from 1 to 5. Assessing the client for a gag reflex (choice A) is important for airway protection but does not confirm tube placement. Placing the NG tube in water to observe for bubbling (choice C) is incorrect and not a reliable method for verifying placement. Auscultating 2.5 cm above the umbilicus while injecting sterile water (choice D) is an outdated method and is not recommended for verifying NG tube placement.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. BUN 15 mg/dL
• B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Sodium 143 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, indicating hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as dysrhythmias, making it important for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health, so they would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, while a sodium level of 143 mEq/L falls within the normal range for adults and does not typically require urgent intervention.

4. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

5. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

Similar Questions