HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
- B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
- C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
- D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
3. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a pad under the client’s head
- B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
- C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
- D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.
4. The charge nurse on the unit observes that one of the staff nurses is not using proper hand washing techniques. Which is the most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior?
- A. Remind the nurse that proper hand washing prevents infection
- B. Discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene
- C. Provide a review of the hand washing policy
- D. Refer the nurse to the infection control nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior of improper hand washing by a staff nurse is to discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene. This approach helps in identifying any knowledge gaps the nurse may have and provides an opportunity to educate and correct the behavior. Option A is not the best choice as simply reminding the nurse about the importance of hand washing may not address the underlying issue of knowledge or technique. Option C, providing a review of the hand washing policy, may be necessary but is not the most immediate step to take. Option D, referring the nurse to the infection control nurse, is premature and may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved through education and communication first.
5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
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