HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
- B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
- C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
- D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.
2. The nurse is preparing to assist a newly admitted client with personal hygiene measures. The nurse wants to assess the client's gag reflex. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Offer small sips of water through a straw
- B. Place tongue blade on back half of tongue
- C. Use a penlight to observe back of the oral cavity
- D. Auscultate breath sounds after the client swallows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include when assessing the client's gag reflex is to place a tongue blade on the back half of the tongue. This method effectively tests the gag reflex without causing discomfort. Choice A is incorrect because offering small sips of water through a straw does not assess the gag reflex. Choice C is incorrect as using a penlight to observe the back of the oral cavity does not directly assess the gag reflex. Choice D is incorrect since auscultating breath sounds after the client swallows does not evaluate the gag reflex.
3. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.
4. A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has full-thickness burns on his leg. The client expresses concern about his future. Which of the following is a therapeutic response by the nurse?
- A. “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?”
- B. “If you work hard on your physical therapy, you won’t need to worry.”
- C. “You shouldn’t worry about the future so you can concentrate on getting well.”
- D. “Why are you concerned even though everyone is here to help you?”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A, “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?” This response acknowledges the client's concerns about the future, validating their feelings and encouraging open communication. It shows empathy and allows the client to express their worries. Choice B minimizes the client's concerns by suggesting that they won't need to worry if they work hard on physical therapy, which may invalidate their emotions. Choice C dismisses the client's worry, implying that they should ignore their concerns to focus on getting well. Choice D uses a confrontational approach by questioning the client's concerns, which may discourage open communication and make the client feel defensive.
5. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
- C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
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