Nursing Elites

1. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
• B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
• C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
• D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.

2. In an emergency situation, the charge nurse on the night shift at an urgent care center has to deal with admitting clients of higher acuity than usual due to a large fire in the area. Which style of leadership and decision-making would be best in this circumstance?

• A. Assume a decision-making role
• B. Seek input from staff
• C. Use a non-directive approach
• D. Shared decision-making with others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation such as dealing with patients of higher acuity due to a large fire, it is crucial for the charge nurse to assume a decision-making role. This style of leadership allows for quick and efficient decision-making to manage the increased acuity of patients effectively. Seeking input from staff (Choice B) may delay critical decisions needed in emergencies. Using a non-directive approach (Choice C) or shared decision-making with others (Choice D) may not be suitable in urgent situations where immediate actions are required to address the high acuity of patients.

3. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?

• A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
• B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
• C. Leaving the area open to dry
• D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.

4. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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