Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
• B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn's skin.
• C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment.
• D. Measure the newborn's temperature every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is receiving phototherapy, it is important to avoid using lotions or ointments on their skin as these products can lead to skin irritation and burns under the phototherapy lights. Dressing the newborn in lightweight clothing helps ensure proper exposure to the phototherapy lights. Keeping the newborn supine during treatment helps maximize exposure to the light. However, the key consideration in this scenario is to prevent skin irritation and burns by avoiding lotions or ointments.

2. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

3. A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit and reports that July 10 was the first day of her last menstrual period. Using Nagele’s Rule, the nurse calculates the estimated date of birth for the client to be _________.

• A. 4/17.
• B. 4/10.
• C. 5/10.
• D. 5/17.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nagele's Rule is a common method used to estimate the due date. To calculate it, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. In this case, if the last menstrual period started on July 10, subtracting 3 months (April) and adding 7 days gives an estimated due date of April 17. This is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the Nagele's Rule calculation method.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

Similar Questions