a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg im 12 hr available in dexame a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg im 12 hr available in dexame
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

2. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In infants, monitoring IV flow rates is essential to prevent fluid overload, not cardiac overload. Excessive fluid administration can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema or congestive heart failure. It is crucial to maintain a balance between providing adequate hydration and avoiding fluid overload to prevent adverse outcomes. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary concern is to prevent complications related to excess fluid rather than focusing on electrolyte balance, dehydration prevention, or avoiding cardiac overload.

3. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

4. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.

5. Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her food choice will most likely be based on ___.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During stressful situations like watching an exciting sports match, individuals often seek emotional comfort through food. This emotional connection can lead Farah to choose foods that provide comfort or familiarity rather than being based on regional cuisines (choice A), general preferences (choice B), or positive associations (choice D). Farah's food choice is likely driven by the need for emotional comfort to alleviate her nervousness, making option C the most suitable answer.

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