Nursing Elites

1. A client has experienced a fetal demise following a vaginal delivery at term. What should the nurse advise the client?

• A. “You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to.”
• B. “If you don’t hold the baby, it will make letting go much harder.”
• C. “You should name the baby so he/she can have an identity.”
• D. “I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a fetal demise, allowing the parents to bathe and dress their baby can offer them a sense of closure and help them in their grieving process. This act can provide a tangible way for the parents to bond with their baby and create lasting memories. Option B is incorrect because each individual may have different emotional needs and holding the baby may not be appropriate or helpful for everyone. Option C, while well-intentioned, may not be suitable for all parents as naming the baby could be emotionally challenging. Option D is insensitive as it overlooks the grieving process of losing a baby by suggesting a replacement.

2. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?

• A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
• B. Lubricate the eyes.
• C. Prevent the development of infection.
• D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.

3. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

• A. a carrier of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• B. susceptible to the disease after adolescence.
• C. an acceptor of the recessive gene that causes the disease.
• D. susceptible to the disease in late adulthood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

4. A woman who is 38 weeks gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dizziness while standing
• B. Sinus tachycardia
• C. Lower back pain
• D. Absent patellar reflexes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absent patellar reflexes. Absent patellar reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Dizziness while standing (choice A) is common in pregnancy but does not specifically indicate magnesium toxicity. Sinus tachycardia (choice B) can be a normal response to magnesium sulfate but does not indicate toxicity. Lower back pain (choice C) is common in pregnancy and not specifically associated with magnesium toxicity.

5. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

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