Nursing Elites

1. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Klinefelter syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

• A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
• B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
• C. Uterus is soft.
• D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

3. When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?

• A. During the second or third week
• B. After the first trimester
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.

4. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.

5. In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?

• A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
• B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
• C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
• D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.

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