a nurse is assessing a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the prov
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HESI Maternal Newborn

1. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.

2. When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their natural parents in a trait, it can be concluded that:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When children exhibit traits that are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents, it indicates a strong genetic influence on those traits. This similarity suggests that genetics play a significant role in the development of the observed characteristics. Choice A is incorrect because genetic characteristics do not change over time in this context. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that heredity is the only factor, disregarding the impact of the environment. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that only the environment influences trait development, overlooking the genetic contribution.

3. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

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