Nursing Elites

1. A new parent is receiving discharge teaching about car seat safety from a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45-degree angle in the car.”
• B. “I should place the car seat rear-facing until my baby is 12 months old.”
• C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s shoulders.”
• D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positioning the car seat at a 45-degree angle is crucial to prevent the baby's head from falling forward, which can obstruct the airway. Choice B is incorrect because the recommendation is to keep the car seat rear-facing until the baby reaches the height or weight limit set by the car seat manufacturer, typically beyond 12 months. Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be snugly placed at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice D is incorrect as the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.

2. What additional assessment is required for the postoperative care of a pregnant woman who undergoes abdominal surgery for appendicitis?

• A. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site.
• B. Signs and symptoms of infection.
• C. Vital signs and incision.
• D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct additional assessment for postoperative care of a pregnant woman requiring abdominal surgery for appendicitis is monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity. This is crucial due to the presence of the fetus. Continuous fetal and uterine monitoring should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While assessing I&O levels and the IV site are common postoperative care procedures, they are not specific to the unique needs of a pregnant woman. Evaluating for signs and symptoms of infection is important for any postoperative patient but is not the additional assessment required specifically for a pregnant woman in this scenario. Routine vital signs and incision evaluation are standard components of postoperative care but do not address the specific needs related to the fetus and the uterus in this case.

3. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

4. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

5. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?

• A. 46
• B. 44
• C. 23
• D. 22

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.

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