HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. A new parent is receiving discharge teaching about car seat safety from a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I should position my baby’s car seat at a 45-degree angle in the car.”
- B. “I should place the car seat rear-facing until my baby is 12 months old.”
- C. “I should place the harness snugly in a slot above my baby’s shoulders.”
- D. “I should position the retainer clip at the top of my baby’s abdomen.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positioning the car seat at a 45-degree angle is crucial to prevent the baby's head from falling forward, which can obstruct the airway. Choice B is incorrect because the recommendation is to keep the car seat rear-facing until the baby reaches the height or weight limit set by the car seat manufacturer, typically beyond 12 months. Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be snugly placed at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice D is incorrect as the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.
2. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- C. Hemophilia
- D. Huntington’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?
- A. Molding
- B. Vernix Caseosa
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.
4. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
5. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.
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